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In the proposed answer to part a, 0.2 standard deviation of optimum is used to demarcate the range of acceptable evaluation metrics. Is there any evidence to support why 0.2? It appears rather arbitrary to me.
In the proposed answer to part a, 0.2 standard deviation of optimum is used to demarcate the range of acceptable evaluation metrics. Is there any evidence to support why 0.2? It appears rather arbitrary to me.